Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 12:08
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How does a 45-year-old man get a girlfriend?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What do people aim for when they meditate, and how do they do it properly?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why prices from these cities in Utah and Nebraska won't be included in inflation data - NPR
What's (not “whats”) the rule?